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A 44-year-old man with history of renal transplant, on immunosupression with prednisone and tacrolimus, presents to the emergency department with high-grade fever of 105 °C and confusion. He initially developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for a few days after attending a dinner party. Later, he developed fever and headache. His symptoms progressed, with worsening neurological features, manifested as ataxia and tremors. Soon after admission to the emergency department, he developed seizures and lost consciousness, and was intubated to protect his airway. Routine labs were sent for investigation, and both CT head scan and lumbar puncture were performed. CBC revealed leukocytosis. CT scan was negative for any acute findings, and CSF fluid analysis revealed increased white blood cells, mainly lymphocytes, and low glucose.
Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this illness?
Crohn’s disease and anal canal high-risk HPV infection